OT: Why do people use double negatives and add confusion?

Jul 10, 2021 Last reply: 5 years ago 30 Replies
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That's the pluperfect tense. Perfectly straightforward.

Don't tell me you didn't listen during Latin lessons?

The plu what? "He had to go out" means the same thing.

I thought it was 1974, Bachman Turner Overdrive:

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can't have made much money in music those days, they couldn't afford barbers.

Only those with OCD care about such a tiny difference.

The pluperfect. You can always Google it.

Tell you what...

Here you are:

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"He had had to go out" and "he had to go out" do not mean the same thing and they never have. Even the Romans knew that.

It predates even the 1927 film "The Jazz Singer", widely accepted as the first "talkie" (though it was mainly silent).

Al Jolson had been using the phrase in his stage act for years before that.

And he was always right.

No, complaining about a stupid thing people do is not OCD.

You need to if you don't have OCD, as it doesn't come naturally to normal people what the meaning of "it's not unusual" is.

Subtlety is for OCD folk.

Only if they see me do it.

If you don't have a clear number, you can be vague and say "more".

I only have one brain, unless you count the gut, which some biologists do.

If you need precision, you need numbers not words. What's wrong with "rare", "quite rare", "fairly common", "common"?

OCD folk like to think they have superior brains, when in actual fact they overthink everything and can't skip over unimportant stuff.

What if they're on the phone?

The lyric in that song was 'You ain't seen nothing yet'

I misheard it, or did I missee the above? Why isn't there a word missee?

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