I was told that pre-heating natural or LP gas will increase the BTUs
and decrease the gas usage. I got to thinking that if I run the gas
pipes thru the heating ducts the gas will be heated as it is used. I
know I can run the pipes, but is it legal to code? According to the
length and path of my gas pipes and ducts, I could run at least 80% of
all gas pipes inside heating ducts.
Sure sounds like a troll. But clearly even aside from code issues
and simple practicality, is the fact that the premise is wrong.
Sure, if the gas or the combustion air going into a furnace is warmer,
the furnace will put out a very small amount of additional heat.
However, where is this tiny amount of extra heat coming from? In the
proposed scheme, it comes from the heating ducts, where the gas
passing through will be cooling the heated air by a tiny amount. It's
like trying to drive a generator with a motor wired to the generator.
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