OT but possibly interesting in a strange kind of way. Warning: Risk of considerable boredom. I've just been looking at the amazing publication:-
"treasury_analysis_economic_impact_of_eu_membership_web.pdf" Available at
Osborne's eqn, has, according to BBC News hack Norman Smith, ("you'd have to be Einstein cousin's to understand it") , a spectacular equation on p 158
A couple of things about the eqn (I couldn't get further before boredom set in).
The equation has about a dozen terms (so must be complicated right!). I'm no maths guru by any means so, while not understanding the eqn's meaning, there are (to me) some strange goings on in it. So, I wonder can anyone else explain it?
1) For starters the eqn has the LHS as ln(T subscript (ijt)) =ijt we are told denotes "Trade flows between country i and country j in time t". But what happens if country i has no trade flow with country j (time is irrelevant here), then we would have ln(0). Isn't this impossible! As is defined as (minus)infinity!
2) The terms on the RHS do not seem to pass the wildest test of basic dimensional analysis. i.e They are summing different entities! Unless of course Economics has a maths language that is based on a kind of feral gibberish.Ah well, I look forward to a clear explanation from Mr Osborne - or anyone. I mean, it MUST be correct as Britain's future depends on it - doesn't it.